Is it correct to run code inside a method whose object has been destroyed?
Consider an object for which a method is invoked.
Beyond certain point the method no longer accesses this
at all. No read/writes of non-static members. No invocation of non-static methods.
Is it safe to destroy such object in another thread after being sure the method has gone beyond such point even if it has not finished executing the whole method?
Consider the following example:
#include <mutex>
#include <condition_variable>
#include <memory>
#include <thread>
class InstrumentedMutex {
public:
void lock() {
internalMutex.lock();
}
void unlock() {
internalMutex.unlock();
printf("unlocked\n"); //A. Maybe undefined behaviour.
variable = 3; //B. Undefined behaviour for sure
} //C. Maybe undefined behaviour.
std::mutex& mutex() {
return internalMutex;
}
private:
std::mutex internalMutex;
int variable;
};
std::unique_ptr<InstrumentedMutex> instMutex;
std::condition_variable cv;
bool flag = false;
void f1() {
instMutex->lock();
flag = true;
cv.notify_one();
instMutex->unlock();
}
int main() {
instMutex.reset ( new InstrumentedMutex() );
std::thread extra_thread(f1);
std::unique_lock<std::mutex> lock(instMutex->mutex());
cv.wait(lock, []() { return flag; });
lock.unlock();
lock.release();
instMutex.reset(); // Will this cause undefined behaviour
// regarding comments A, B and C?
extra_thread.join();
return 0;
}
Line with comment B is undefined behaviour for sure because of this possible execution schedule:
main thread extra_thread
----------- ------------
cv.wait(lock) // unlocks
// lock and waits
instMutex->lock();
flag=true
cv.notify_one()
instMutex->unlock() {
internalMutex.unlock();
// At this point the cv has been notified
// the flag set and the mutex
// unlocked. So main thread may
// continue
lock.unlock();
lock.release();
instMutex.reset();
// At this point the instMutex
// object has been destroyed
// But here we are executing
// "inside" the destroyed object.
printf("unlocked\n");
variable = 3; // Here we are
// writing to freed memory.
Would line for comment A also be undefined behaviour?
What about line for comment C? Which is meant to be when the method has executed completely (and any destructors for local objects which might reference this
have also finished executing), and the method just has to return.
"Has just to return" is not very formal and kind of assumes a stack based implementation. So maybe a better way to express the question regarding line C would be: If a method has no code after a synchronization barrier (not even destructors for local objects), is it always safe to destroy the associated object after ensuring that such synchronization barrier has completed?
1 answer
Yes, it's correct.
An object's methods aren't things that exist in memory with the object. They're in a completely separate section of memory, and a method exists exactly once regardless of whether you have one object, a million objects or zero objects.
You can even go so far as to delete this
and the world doesn't explode. See https://isocpp.org/wiki/faq/freestore-mgmt#delete-this
(Obviously, I wouldn't actually do this without extremely good reason since it's very easy to make mistakes and completely screw things up, but that's not what you asked.)
4 comments
Legal does not mean moral. Just because you can does not mean you should. This is like asking if playing Russian Roulette with all chambers loaded is ok b/c you keep "assuring" yourself that you have taken "precautions"... in this case, it looks like the code in question shouldn't even be part of the class and knowingly doing something like this is almost the equivalent of booby-trapping your code. — ghost-in-the-zsh 18 days ago
@ghost-in-the-zsh Do you mean lines A, B, C or something else? B is undefined behaviour. After Hyperlinx's answer I see no problem with A and C, self-synchronized objects are common practice. Or maybe you mean method mutex() which returns a reference to a private? Sure, not good practice. This is just a MCVE. — Estela 16 days ago
@Estela: Well, the question title itself asking about whether it's "correct to run code inside a method whose object has been destroyed" first makes me wonder why someone would like to, e.g., get object A to destroy some other object B and then try to run object B's code after instance B no longer exists. All of that just seems like a design issue, even if the implementer manages to hack it up to an "it works" state. That's my thought... — ghost-in-the-zsh 16 days ago
I must be honest, I didn't actually follow through the threads of execution myself to see which specific lines are or aren't legal. I just cut straight to "yes, it is legal to run a method in an object that has been deleted", which is what the question appears to be asking overall, and is true in all cases as far as I'm aware. — Hyperlynx 14 days ago